In I Corinthians 9:7-14 Apostle Sha'ul appeals to the congregants at Corinth that he is deserving of monteray support due to his intense spiritual labors among them.
Tell me, Christians, on what basis does Apostle Paul make this appeal?
THE TORAH OF MOSHE.
Paul first quotes the Torah in verses 8-10. He uses the Torah precept of not muzziling the ox and compares this with supporting a minister of the gospel.
Now, if Christian theology is correct and the Torah has passed way -- WHY WOULD PAUL USE THE TORAH AS A BASIS BY WHICH TO PERSUADE THE CORINTHIANS THAT HE DESERVES THEIR MONETARY SUPPORT????
He again appeals to the Torah in verse 13. Torah ordains that the priests live off the offerings given at the Temple and are partakers with the altar, So, too, are ministers of the gospel to live of the gospel.
Again, Paul proves his case by pointing back to the Torah of Moshe. Yet Christians say the Torah was done away with at the cross, that it was nailed and done away with. They claim Paul wrote against the need to keep Torah, having receieved a new "law of Christ". If that were so, Paul would NOT have used Torah to make a case as to why he should receive monetary support from the Corinthians.
Think about it.
Would it make any sense for Paul to claim Torah is passed away and is no longer necessary and then use Torah to declare that he should receieve support???? Of course not. He would have NEVER used Torah as an argument if he really thought the Torah was "nailed to the cross".
The above verses proves Paul believed the Torah was a living document, that it had NOT passed away, that its precepts and principles were STILL BINDING even on Gentile believers and that he could rightly use the Torah to prove why he deserved financial support from those he labored amongst.
